Wednesday, January 19, 2005
OK, I got a question
I was reading a Jewish/Catholic discussion group today, and people were asking how a SSPX mass could be valid but illicit, like, what that meant. It seemed pretty simple to me, but reading on a canon brought up the fact that this distinction appears almost nowhere outside of Catholic law. Is this true? Does anyone else know of where valid and licit, that is, legal, might not be equivlent?
It all makes sense to me, so confusing.
It all makes sense to me, so confusing.
